Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not

Last updated: 8/11/2022

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts. Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.