Biology Questions

1 A cell containing genetic material DNA but no true nucleus is a n O plant cell O Animal call O Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell

Place the events of the action potential in order sodium channels re set themselves A 2 LY V 1 V U voltage gated sodium channels open potassium channels re set themselves local potential depolarization of the trigger zone voltage gated potassium channels open

Some axons are myelinated What is the purpose of myelination to receive signals from sensory receptors to speed the conduction of action potentials to provide nutrients to the axon to transport proteins made in the cell body

Question 11 1 point There are 25 O O O O 10 20 times as many neuroglial cells in the CNS than there are neurons

Match the function with the neuroglial cell that performs the function the macrophages of the CNS produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid CSF wrap foot processes around the brain s capillaries produce myelin for CNS axons 1 astrocyte 2 oligodendrocyte 3 microglial cell 4 ependymal cell

Match the structural region of a neuron with its general function 1 3 2 Y V axon terminals cell body axon 1 receptive 2 conductive 3 secretory

Neurons that carry touch sensations from your skin are typically which type multipolar bipolar

Match each structure with its components 2 V 4 1 3 cell bodies in the PNS Peripheral nervous system axons in the CNS Icell bodies in the CNS axons in the PNS 1 nucleus of the CNS not the cell or the atom 2 ganglion 3 nerve 4 tract

Most neurons are which type Opseudounipolar neurons unipolar neurons bipolar neurons

In a group of rose plants some individuals have light yellow flowers and others have dark yellow flowers this group the gene for the flower color trait has two alleles The allele F is for light yellow flowers and th allele f is for dark yellow flowers A certain rose plant from this group has light yellow flowers This plant has two alleles for light yellow flowers Based on this information what is this rose plant s genotype for the flower color gene FF light yellow flowers Submit dark yellow flowers Ff

NA binding response regulators RR Question List 6 items Drag and drop into the appropriate area No more items Correct Answer List 1 2 4 System activation Stimulus received by sensor domain Conformational change activates CA domain allowing it to bind ATP Phosphate on RR is removed Phosphate on SK histidine is transferred to aspartic acid of cognate RR Conformational change in RR allows binding to

new C od ad pq G old G Describe what is happening in the picture above new Notes use bullet poir

Reminder click here for interactive practice questions before you do the Daily Check for this lesson The Daily Check score will determine if you need to review this information a bit more or if you are ready to dive deeper into this topic How does the structure of DNA relate to its function Organism F 000 Yeast Malzo Wheat Grasshopper Sea Urchin Octopus RAT Shuman KA G 313 16 7 171 747 26 0 757 736 105 101 517 488 268 22 8 23 2 27 2 0 99 0 98 29 3 27 3 22 7 728 27 1 1 01 1 00 20 5 20 7 30 2 17 6 T AT G C KGC 17 6 200 22 0 21 6 286 24 329 0 95 109 70 5 32 8 17 7 17 3 32 1 1 02 1 02 35 0 01 9 1 05 1 00 35 2 29 3 1 00 0 99 28 4 0 99 1 02 78 4 1 01 100 35 8 293 207 200 300 090 104 45 5 44 42 R AT 407 644 54 0 544 649 840 56 4 570 59 0 Loco Identify Look at the graphic State what you see notice happening in the image Interpret Look back at your statements now explain WHY or HOW what you noticed is occurring Caption Write a 1 2 sentence summary that combines your Identify and Interpret statements that would thoroughly describe this graphic to someone reading your caption

C extinction of the fish eating group convergence of the two groups into one species divergence of the two groups into separate species

What do scientists call a disease caused by a pathogen that is easily passed between people non infectious genetic contagious

29 Below is a sequence recognized by a restriction enzyme One of the DNA strands is methylated and the other is not What is the role of the Me methyl groups on the second strand GAATT CTTAAG GAATT CTTAAG a Direct a restriction enzyme to cut at that sequence b Signal that the DNA is self not foreign and thus should not be cut c Signal for the virus to insert itself into that sequence region d Signal for the virus to enter into the lytic cycle and excise itself from the host cell genome 30 Which of the following steps is unique to a virus that enters into lysogeny versus a virus that moves through only the lytic cycle a Phage DNA is injected into the bacterial cell b Many copies of phage are made that move on to infect neighboring cells c The phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome becoming a prophage d The virus slowly releases viral copies from its host successfully avoiding lysing the host cell 31 CRISPR is considered an example of adaptive immunity in bacteria and archaea because it a neutralizes viral DNA by using guide RNA complementary to the invading viral DNA and a CAS protein that then cleaves the target DNA b methylates host DNA preventing the virus from integrating into the host cell chromosome c it generates antibodies that recognize and destroy invading viruses d prevents the production of cell surface receptors that allow phages to get into the cell 32 When a bacterium replicates its genome and passes the replicated information on to a new cell in the process of binary fission this is an example of a horizontal gene transfer b vertical gene transfer c parallel gene transfer d mitosis 33 This is an enzyme which is capable of inserting negative supercoils within a double stranded DNA molecule and is unique to prokaryotes making it a popular target for antibiotic treatment a Helicase c Class I Topoisomerase b Telomerase d DNA gyrase Class II Topoisomerase

A B C mouth parts coloration extremities P

40 What is the role of the RNA primer in replication a The primer provides a free 3 OH group for nucleotide addition which is required by DNA Polymerase III b The primer enables the DNA polymerase to differentiate between the leading and the lagging strand c It is necessary for DNA repair enzymes to be able to differentiate between the older template strand and the newly synthesized strand d It protects the single stranded DNA from degradation prior to replication by the DNA polymerase 41 How do eukaryotic genomes differ from prokaryotic genomes a A larger portion of eukaryotic genomes are composed of non coding DNA such as introns and pseudogenes b Eukaryotic genomes are linear prokaryotic genomes are generally circular c Eukaryotes use a telomerase to replicate the ends of their chromosomes prokaryotes do not utilize a telomerase d All of the above 42 Identify which template strand below would be acting as the template for lagging strand synthesis 5 Template Strand A Template Strand B A Template Strand A B Template Strand Replication Fork 3 43 Which of the following accurately describes the role of SeqA in replication a Seqa binds single stranded DNA that forms at the replication fork protecting it from attack by cellular nucleases b SeqA binds to hemi methylated origins of replication to prevent immediate re initiation of replication c SeqA relieves torsional strain that develops at the replication fork as the double stranded DNA molecule becomes denatured

18 Select the FALSE statement regarding viruses a All domains of life are susceptible to infection by viruses b Viruses require a host cell because the host cell protects their genetic information from degradation c Some viruses may leave their capsid outside of the host upon infection with only the genome entering into the host cell d Some viruses have genomes composed of DNA and some viruses have genomes composed of RNA 19 An alternative to antibiotic treatment for severe diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile is being investigated C difficile has documented resistance to many antibiotics and causes severe intestinal distress This alternative treatment includes a cocktail containing four viruses CDHM1 2 5 and 6 This alternative treatment would be an example of a probiotic treatment b prebiotic treatment 20 All viruses must contain which of the following a Capsid b Genetic information c Envelope a prophage provirus b provirus prophage c phage therapy d radiation therapy 21 When a bacteriophage integrates into a host cell genome it is referred to as a an when a virus integrates into a human genome it is referred to as a an c latent virus chronic virus d chronic virus latent virus d Both a and b e All of the above 23 Some viruses may derive their a envelope b capsid such d Are 22 SARS CoV 2 has been detected in dogs cats lions tigers and minks and also infects humans HIV is only known to infect humans SARS CoV 2 would be described as a having a broader host range than HIV b having tissue tropism c being a prophage d being a chronic virus from the host cell membrane c capsule d spike proteins

34 Which of the following correctly describes an operon a Multiple genes organized behind one promoter the transcription of which results in a polycistronic mRNA b One regulatory protein capable of controlling expression of multiple genes throughout the genome c Short DNA sequences included within a gene that are removed after transcription d Regulatory sequences that are found in the middle of a gene 35 Which of the following is FALSE regarding DNA polymerase III a It requires a DNA template b It is responsible for synthesizing a new strand of DNA that is complementary to the template c It synthesizes the leading strand in the 5 3 direction and the lagging strand in the 3 5 direction d It has the ability to proofread its work increasing the overall accuracy of the product 36 Which of the following correctly states the events that occur during the initiation phase of replication a DnaA ATP binds to the 9 mer region which facilitates the melting of the nearby A T rich 13 mer region b DnaA ATP binds to the 9 mer region which facilitates the melting of the nearby G C rich 13 mer region c DnaA ATP binds directly to the A T rich 13 mer region after ATP is hydrolyzed the 13 mer region then denatures and DnaA ADP disengages from the origin so that replication can begin d DnaA ATP binds directly to the G C rich 13 mer region after ATP is hydrolyzed the 13 mer region then denatures and DnaA ADP disengages from the origin so that replication can begin 37 After replication RNA primers must be replaced with DNA Which of the following enzymes is NOT utilized during primer replacement a RnaseH b Ligase c DNA Polymerase I d Primase 38 While not being involved in the actual polymerization of DNA this protein is closely associated with DNA polymerase III and increases the processivity of the DNA polymerase III enzyme a Primase b Sliding clamp c Single stranded binding proteins d Helicase 39 Which option correctly identifies the order in which the following enzymes DNA polymerase III Helicase DnaA ATP and primase would be involved in DNA replication The enzymes should be in order from first to be utilized to the last a DnaA ATP primase helicase DNA polymerase III b helicase primase DnaA ATP DNA polymerase III c helicase DnaA ATP DNA polymerase III primase d DnaA ATP helicase primase DNA polymerase III

24 How do viruses contributed to the recycling of nutrients in marine environments a They infect organisms leading to cell lysis the intracellular material is released and is now available for other organisms to use b Viruses are autotrophic and therefore can fix carbon dioxide and release sugars that other organisms can use c Viruses are heterotrophic and release carbon dioxide that can be used by photosynthetic algae d Viruses are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen and can convert it to a form that can be used by marine plants 25 Bacteriophage T4 attaches to the Ompc porin protein on the cell surface of E coli What would be the likely effect if this protein was no longer made by E coli a E coli would become more susceptible to infection by the virus because it would bypass the protein and be able to diffuse directly through the cell membrane b E coli would become more susceptible to infection by the virus because the virus could lyse the cell more easily c E coli would become resistant to infection by the virus because the virus could no longer attach to the host d There would be no change in the susceptibility of E coli to the virus 26 Group IV viruses such as SARS CoV 2 are ssRNA viruses What enzyme does this type of virus require in order to synthesize mRNA which it needs to make viral proteins a DNA dependent DNA polymerase b DNA dependent RNA polymerase 27 A reverse transcriptase uses a an a DNA DNA b RNA DNA c RNA dependent DNA polymerase d RNA dependent RNA polymerase template to synthesize c RNA RNA d DNA RNA 28 Which of the following viruses WOULD require entry into a cell s nucleus as part of the infection process a A virus such as rotavirus double stranded RNA b A virus such as SARS CoV 2 strand RNA c A virus such as Ebola strand RNA d A retrovirus such as HIV strand RNA

16 The following figure is generated from data collected from an experiment in which the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration MIC of a series of antiseptics and disinfectants was determined against Staphylococcus aureus Gram positive E coli Gram negative and Pseudomonas aeruginosa Gram negative Use the figure below to determine which of the following statements is TRUE TABLE 6 MIC of some antiseptics and disinfectants against gram positive and gram negative bacteria Chemical agent Benzalkonium chloride Benzethonium chloride Cetrimide Chlorhexidine Hexachlorophene Phenol o Phenylphenol Propamine isethionate Dibromopropamidine isethionate Triclosan S aureus 0 5 0 5 4 0 5 1 0 5 2 000 100 2 1 0 1 MIC ng ml for E coli P aeruginosa 50 32 16 1 12 5 2 000 500 64 4 5 250 250 64 128 5 60 250 2 000 1 000 256 32 300 Based on references 226 and 440 MICs of cationic agents for some MRSA strains may be higher see Table 10 a Generally lower concentrations of disinfectants antiseptics are necessary to kill Gram positive organisms when compared to Gram negative organisms b E coli is resistant to Triclosan c Cetrimide is not an effective disinfectant d Hexachlorophene is bacteriostatic for Gram positive organisms but bacteriocidal when used against Gram negative organisms 17 Which best describes microaerophiles a They require both atmospheric oxygen and CO levels to grow b They cannot grow in the presence of oxygen c They can grow in the presence of oxygen but will not use oxygen d They require oxygen to grow but the levels must lower than the concentration typically

4 An E coli culture is moved from a 37 C incubator which is its optimal growth temperature to a 42 C incubator which is the maximum temperature that will support growth This change in temperature will cause many changes in the cell Which of the following is NOT a change that you would expect to occur as a result of the increase in incubation temperature a The fluidity of the membrane will increase b E coli will begin to synthesize more chaperone proteins c The doubling time generation time of E coli will decrease d Some of the cellular proteins may begin to denature 5 When growing in a high salt environment halophilic bacteria synthesize or accumulate compatible solutes What is the function of these solutes a To prevent water from moving from the inside of the cell to the outside of the cell b To prevent water from moving from the outside of the cell to the inside of the cell c To bind excess Na and Cl ions that enter into the cell d To protect DNA from the corresponding increase of cellular Cl levels 6 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding organisms and pH a In highly acidic environments organisms can increase their internal pH by utilizing an amino acid decarboxylase b In alkaline environments organisms can decrease their internal pH by utilizing a Na H antiporter c An acidophile will maintain a pH which is equal to the pH of its external environment d Most human pathogens would be classified as neutralophiles 7 Why do organisms that grow in the presence of oxygen require enzymes such as superoxide dismutase a These enzymes are required to reduce molecular oxygen to water in the last step of aerobic respiration b These enzymes are required to transport oxygen across the prokaryotic cell membrane c These enzymes neutralize reactive oxygen species that are generated as a byproduct of the metabolism of oxygen d These enzymes are required to decarboxylate organic acids 8 Staphylococcus aureus is able to respire aerobically if oxygen is available if oxygen is not available then S aureus is capable of supporting growth through fermentation How would we classify S aureus in terms of its oxygen tolerance a Obligate aerobe b Obligate anaerobe c Aerotolerant anaerobe d Facultative anaerobe

13 This data was collected after a culture of E coli was initially exposed to different concentrations of different disinfectants Its ability to grow in the presence of each disinfectant is evaluated column initial The E coli is then subcultured into media that does not contain the disinfectant and its ability to grow after the disinfectant is removed is evaluated column subcultured Which of the following disinfectants exhibits ONLY bacteriocidal activity at all effective concentrations growth No growth Concentration 1 10 1 20 1 100 1 1000 1 5000 Initial Disinfectant 1 a Disinfectant 1 b Disinfectant 2 c Disinfectant 3 d Disinfectant 4 Subculture Initial Disinfectant 3 Disinfectant 2 Subculture Initial Subculture Initial Disinfectant 4 Subculture 14 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the control of microbial growth via irradiation a Irradiated foods are dangerous to consume and the FDA has banned them from being sold within the US b Exposure to UV gamma rays electron beams and X rays works causes damage to the cell s nucleic acids c Gamma radiation is the most effective way to neutralize prions d UV exposure has been shown to be extremely effective at penetrating surfaces 15 Which of the following statements is TRUE in regards to the stress induced toxin antitoxin system in E coli In this system MazE is the antitoxin and MazF is the toxin a Maze is synthesized continuously but MazF is synthesized only when the cell is under stress b Peptide fragments from G6PD will cleave mRNA and result in the cellular stasis c The stress response will result in the cell discontinuing synthesis of both MazE and MazF but the more stable MazF will persist in the cell for longer than MazE and can begin cleaving mRNA molecules d The stress response will result in the cell discontinuing synthesis of MazE but not MazF herefore MazF is free to begin cleaving mRNA molecules

9 Fluid thioglycolate medium can be used to determine the oxygen tolerance of an organism because a There is no oxygen in the medium preventing the growth of aerobes b There is high concentrations of oxygen at the top of the medium and low concentrations at the bottom of the medium providing an oxygen gradient c There is low concentrations of oxygen at the top of the medium and high concentrations at the bottom of the medium providing an oxygen gradient d The concentration of oxygen is equal throughout the medium preventing the growth of anaerobes 10 A significant rain event has caused the fertilized topsoil of a farm to be washed into a nearby stream This topsoil which is nitrogen rich causes an influx of nitrogen into a nearby stream which was previously nitrogen limited What is the likely effect of this eutrophication event a Organisms that were not good at scavenging for nitrogen will benefit the most from this event and may now outcompete other organisms in the environment resulting in a change in the overall microbial community b Organisms that specialized in nitrogen scavenging will benefit the most from this event and may now outcompete other organisms in the environment resulting in a change in the overall microbial community c All organisms within the stream will increase in number because they can all benefit from the new nitrogen supply so there will be no change in the relative abundance but there will be an increase in overall bacterial numbers d There will be no effect on the microbial community 11 Food companies pasteurize dairy products because a They are not licensed to use autoclaves b It is the cheapest way to sterilize food so pasteurization is a cost saving measure c It is a preferable alternative to gamma irradiation because irradiating the food would carry the risk of radiation poisoning to those that consumed the food d This method reduces the number of pathogens to safe levels while preserving the taste and texture of their product 12 Which of the following statements correctly identifies the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic a Disinfectants kill or remove pathogens from the surface of inanimate objects antiseptics kill or remove pathogens from the surface of living tissue b Disinfectants completely sterilize the surface to which it is applied antiseptics do not sterilize the surface to which it is applied c Disinfectants are not effective against spores antiseptics are effective against spores d Disinfectants are effective against viruses antiseptics are not effective against viruses

1 Listeria monocytogenes is the causative of listeriosis which can adversely affect pregnan Pregnant individuals are advised to avoid consuming cold deli meat or unpasteurized dairy products to avoid potentially becoming ill The reason these foods in particular pose a threat is because Listeria can grow at 4 C in the refrigerator however it prefers higher temperatures to support optimal growth How would L monocytogenes be classified a psychrotolerant psychrotroph b psychrophile c mesophile d thermophile 2 Protein X is present in both thermophiles and mesophiles Protein X performs the same function in both thermophiles and mesophiles Generally how would you expect the protein to differ when comparing the structure of protein X between thermophiles and mesophiles a The protein in the thermophile would have more intramolecular bonds when compared to the same protein in the mesophile b The protein in the thermophile would have fewer intramolecular bonds when compared to the same protein in the mesophile c The protein in the thermophile would contain fewer hydrophobic amino acids when compared to the same protein in the mesophile d The proteins would be identical in both organisms because temperature does not affect protein structure 3 Mono Lake is located close to Yosemite National Park in California From this lake microbiologist have successfully isolated alkalophilic halophiles Which of the following is likely the best description of the water chemistry found at the lake a It has a high pH and a low salt concentration b It has a low pH and a low salt concentration c It has a high pH and a high salt concentration d It has a low pH and a high salt concentration

mthic Mid Water Zone 200 10 O Aphotic Zone 1000

A camouflage B bioluminescence

Squid A B C genetic drift convergent evolution divergent evolution

A rooster with gray feathers and a hen of the same phenotype produce 15 gray 6 black and 8 white chicks What is the most likely mode of inheritance of feather color in chickens Select What phenotypes would you expect in the offspring of a cross between a gray rooster and black hen Select

1 Curare is a poisonous plant extract Curare molecules have a chemical structure like the neurotransmitter ACh Curare can bind to the ACh receptor site on the chemically gated ion channels in the motor end plate Even though curare will bind to the receptor site it will not open the ion channel and no ions will pass through What do you think the symptoms of curare poisoning would look like A Muscles will respond too uickly and cause a severe tremor B Curare will only affect cardiac muscle causing fibrillations of the heart C Curare will only affect muscles with ACh receptors paralyzing them D Smooth muscles will become stimulated causing quick movement of nutrients through the digestive system 2 Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the least effect on A slow oxidative fibers B fast glycolytic fibers C both slow and fast oxidative fibers D fast oxidative fibers 3 The thin filaments are not comprised of which of the following components A Actin B Titin Troponin Tropomyosin C D 4 At the neuromuscular junction the muscle contraction initiation event is A a release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B conduction of an electrical impulse down the T tubules C binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma D sliding of actin and myosin filaments past each other

Question 19 In Labrador retrievers the allele for black coat color B is dominant to the allele for brown chocolate coat color b However if a lab has two copies of the recessive allele for a pigment depositing gene e it can only have yellow coat color In a cross of a black lab that is heterozygous for both gene B and E with a yellow lab whose parents were chocolate what fraction of the next generation would one expect to be yellow 1 8 0 5 pt 1 4

Question 18 Folk singer Woody Guthrie died of Huntington s disease Which statement below must be tr None of his children will inherit Huntington s disease His sons will inherit Huntington s disease but not his daughters His daughters will inherit Huntington s disease but not his sons At least one of Woody Guthrie s parents must have had Huntington s disease also

Which of the following genotype s would result in an individual with the type A blood phenotype Select all that apply ii Ai A A A B Question 14 0 5 pts

In fruit flies Drosophila an autosomal gene controls body color Individuals that are homozygous recessive have an ebony body color but are quite weak Individuals that are homozygous dominant have a normal body color and normal physical condition and heterozygous individuals have a normal body color with increased physical condition This is an example of epistasis Oheterozygote advantage polygenic inheritance multiple alleles

25 II 50 III MONO Affected Male Affected Female KEY Wild Type Male Based on this pedigree describing the inheritance of an autosomal dominant disease what probability that person A will birth an affected child if she mates with a wild type male Wild Type Female

The black chicken and the white roster are parents to the individuals in the middle image What type of dominance relationship most likely leads to these feather colors in chickens Complete dominance Incomplete dominance Codominance Pleiotropy W ES

Question 16 0 Fur color in Labrador retrievers is determined by two genes gene B for coat color and gene E f deposition of pigment Nose lip and gum color is determined only by gene B A yellow female with brown nose and gums is mated with a brown chocolate male whose mother was yellow What are their possible offspring yellow and brown all with brown noses yellow and brown all with black noses 1 3 yellow and 1 3 black and 1 3 brown all with black noses brown with brown noses and black with black noses

In Labrador retrievers the allele for black coat color B is dominant to the allele for brown coat color b However if a lab has two copies of the recessive allele for a pigment depositing gene e it can only have yellow coat color In a cross of two doubly heterozygous black labs BbEe x BbEe what fraction of the next generation would one expect to be yellow 3 16 1 8 1 16 1 4 Question 15 0 5 pts

Question 17 In squash color is determined by two genes that are epistatic At the first gene white squash W is dominant to colored squash w At the second gene yellow Y is dominant to green y A squash that is green must have the genotype OWWYy Wwyy Owwyy 0 5 A green squash can be either Wwyy or WWY

is a human genetic disease that results in cognitive impairment but it can be prevented by following a strict low protein diet OCystic fibrosis Sickle cell anemia Huntington s disease

If a person with blood type A and a person with blood type B have a child what are the possible blood types that child could have Only type AB is possible Types A and B are possible Types A B AB and O are possible Types A B and AB are possible

Dominant A Recessive B 66 Does this pedigree show a dominant or recessive disorder 8 4 D C

The following question refers to the pedigree chart in the figure below for a family some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait W Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle 1 4 1 2 I 216 IIOT III IV What is the probability that individual III 1 is Ww ww 2 3 4 2 Ww 3 6 10 5 6 7 8 2 3 4

Question 6 is an example of a character that is controlled by more than one gene a quantitati character and demonstrates a continuum of phenotypes Pleiotropy Polygenic inheritance Epistasis Codominance 0 5 PRA

A gene that affects the expression of a second gene is an example of pleiotropy codominance epistasis polygenic inheritance incomplete dominance Question 2 PLA 0 5 pts

If one parent who has Huntington s disease is heterozygous for the trait and the other parent affected what are the chances of their offspring inheriting the trait 0 25 50

fint new mem quarter mun Jull meng Cast quarter Moon Bursday 8 18 22 29 Lunar Phase New Moon New Crescent First Quarter New Gibbous O 23 30 Trenday Wednesday Thundar 3 10 17 24 31 4 11 18 25 Date 3 1 July 8 July 6 12 19 26 Risday 0 13 20 27 Table 2 14 21 28 Lunar Phase Full Moon 2 Key New Moon First quarter Moon Full Moon Old Gibbous Last Quarter Old Crescent Last quartor Moon Date 16 July b On which date will the next first quarter Moon phase occur August 6 B August 10 C August 16 D August 22 c On which date was this phase of the Moon visible from New York State A July 4 B July 11 July 19 D July 26

Before After

The mesocosm is self sustaining Write about how they provide their own nutrients cause the bacteria can detoxify waste and put in back into the ecosystem Talk about energy nutrient availability and detoxification of waste