Molecular Basis of Inheritance Questions and Answers

During the process of replication, a molecule of DNA unzips, forming two single strands. What makes up each individual strand of DNA? A. nitrogenous bases attached to a sugar-phosphate backbone B. paired thymine and guanine bases C. paired adenine and uracil bases D. sugar groups attached to individual amino acids

The diagram below illustrates a process that can occur during cell division and results in an alteration in the composition of a chromosome. Each letter in the diagram represents a specific gene on the chromosome. The diagram shows that a section of the chromosome was broken out and reinserted backwards. This is known as A. Chromosomal Translocation B. Chromosomal Insertion C. Chromosomal Deletion D. Chromosomal Inversion

Which option below illustrates the DNA "Base Pairing Rule"? G-C and A-T Jack and Jill G-C and A-U

(8.3) Thirty-three percent of sea urchin DNA is composed of the nitrogenous base adenine (A). According to Erwin Chargaff, what percent of the DNA is composed of guanine (G)? a 17% b 66% c 33% d 8%

In a DNA double helix, a region along one strand of DNA has the following sequence: 5'- GCCTAATC-3' What is the complementary sequence? A. 3'-GCCTAATC-5' B. 5'-CGGAUUAG-3' C. 5'-CGGATTAG-3' D. 3'-CGGATTAG-5'

If double stranded DNA has 14% G (guanine), what percent A (adenine), T (thymine) and C (cytosine) would you expect? A. A = 14%, T = 36 % and C=36% B. C=14%, A= 36% and T=36% C. A= 14%, T=14% and C= 14% D. A 14%, T=36% and C=14%

(8.2) Watson and Crick published a paper that shows DNA was a double helix made of complementary strands. Which means that if one strand is CTATGT, the other strand would be a GATACA b CTATGT c GATCCA

Which of the following statements explains the relationship that is most similar to the relationship between genes and chromosomes? Directions for building a structure Stairs going to the second floor Sails that powers the boat Fur covering a polar bear

Select all of the following genotypes that is/are homozygous? A ZZ B ZZ c Aa D AA E aa F ZZ

Q2A: Knowing how the ara operon is being regulated when only Arabinose is present, which of the following conclusions can you make based on your results? Select all that apply (2 marks). (a) The fluorescence intensity increases as the concentration of Arabinose increases. This results from high transcription of pGLO plasmid DNA. (b) Glucose concentration does not affect RNAP binding to the PBAD promoter. (c) The low level of fluorescence in AOGO suggests that the change in fluorescence is caused by the Arabinose treatment. (d) If glucose was present, there will be high transcription.

Zoe is a healthy young woman who is researching her ancestry. She sent a DNA sample to a company to have her genes analyzed. The results show that a large percentage of her ancestors came from an area of South America bordering the equator. Her results also revealed that she carried the Sickle Cell Trait. How will having the Sickle Cell Trait influence Zoe's future health status? Multiple Choice Zoe's bone marrow will start to make fragile, sickle-shaped erythrocytes. Zoe start to experi regular periods of fatigue, dizziness, pale skin, and lightheadedness. The rate of destruction of Zoe's erythrocytes will be faster than her body's ability to make new erythrocytes. Zoe will be healthy and not experience any type of adverse effects from having the Sickle Cell Trait.

Due to gene interactions, pigment in mouse fur is only produced when the W allele is present. Individuals of the ww genotype are white. If color is present, it may be determined by the A, a alleles. AA or Aa results in agouti color, while ad results in black coats. a) What F1 genotypic and phenotypic ratios are obtained from a Pgen cross between AAWW and aaww mice? b) What phenotypic ratios would be expected in the F2 generation of the above Pgen cross?

You want to search for latent prints on a styrofoam cup. What type of fingerprint processing will you use? * Ninhydrin Super glue / Cyanoacrylate Amido Black Black or Magnetic Fingerprint Powder

Helicases are proteins that "unzip" double stranded DNA to produce two, unbound single-strands of DNA. Some helicases initially bind to double-stranded DNA, while other helicases initially bind to single-stranded DNA and then unzip the double-stranded DNA in front of them. Viruses are particularly dependent on helicases for viral replication. What features in DNA would be recognized by each of these two classes of helicases that would allow them to be specific?

Why is cancer growth dependent on an increased number of blood vessels? a) All options are correct b) To shield the tumor from immune cells c) To increase the tumor's stability d) To supply the tumor with oxygen and nutrients

Vocab: match the definition or description to the correct pattern of genetics. Column A .Show changes in chromosomes such as Down syndrome Human skin color and eye color both traits are fully and separately expressed Blending the ingredients of a fruit smoothie Column B a. codominance b. incomplete dominance c. polygenic traits d. multiple alleles e. pedigree f. karyotype

Which technique would you use to separate proteins by charge? a) Size exclusion chromatography b) PCR c) Sonication d) lon exchange chromatography

What does it usually mean when an actin filament has an ATP cap? The actin filament has actin covalently bound to ATP via a phosphodiester bond at the plus end. The actin filament has additional ATP molecules added onto its actin-ATP units at the plus end to stabilize the filament and prevent dynamic instability. The actin filament has additional ATP molecules added onto its actin-ATP units at the plus end to stabilize the filament and prevent treadmilling. The actin filament has actin bound to ATP at the plus end.

Recombination within which type of inversion heterozygote results in a dicentric chromosome? Why does a dicentric chromosome not form in the other type of inversion heterozygote. You must explain in enough detail to tell me you know what you're talking about.

Which statement below about nucleotides is TRUE? Base pairing occurs between the 5' and 3' carbons of the sugar in a nucleotide. A deoxynucleotide triphosphate (dNTP) consists of three DNA nucleotides attached together. In a nucleotide, the base is either deoxyribose (in DNA) or ribose (in RNA). A nucleotide is composed of a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.

You are in the lab and you are working with a single neuron (Good job, you neuroscientist!). You expose the dendrites to some neurotransmitters and detect some depolarization in the cell body. However, you observe no action potential. What should you do differently to see an action potential? Expose the axon hillock to the neurotransmitters. Get a new neuron. This one is busted. Increase the concentration of neurotransmitter given. Add more chloride ions to the extracellular fluid.

Which of the following statements is correct for a transmembrane protein being translated by an ER-bound ribosome? There must be a nuclear localization signal. There must be multiple start-transfer sequences. There must be an N-terminal signal sequence. There must be an N-terminal or internal signal sequence.

The Repressor protein... A. attaches to the operator region and blocks GFP gene transcription B. is inactivated by the sugar arabinose C. is activated by the sugar arabinose D. attaches to the promoter of the GFP gene and blocks transcription A and B

Which of the following is known as the "translator molecule"? ribosome mRNA amino acid tRNA DNA

Match the statements in the left with the type of gene transfer in the right. Gene transfer between cells of different generation Gene transfer as a plasmid between two Gram-negative bacteria connected though pilus Gene transfer between two bacteria mediated by a bacteriophage Gene transfer between two bacteria mediated by naked DNA in solution Introduction of a plasmid containing the human insulin gene in Escherichia coli

Recombinant E. coli that contain the plasmid PGLO will only glow in a medium containing... ampicillin repressor GFP gene arabinose all of the above

Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome. b. A prophage can "pop" out of the chromosome. c. A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell. d. A prophage is phage RNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome.

A frame-shift mutation can generate: A. A non-functional protein B. A longer mutated protein C. A shorter protein D. A mutated protein with a different 3D shape E. All of the above I select this option because...

Which one of these statements is correct? Read VERY carefully A. During transcription, all the DNA molecule is transcribed to one mRNA B. Ribosomes start translation at the AUG codon in the tRNA C. Ribosomes always translate all the nucleotides in the mRNA into proteins D. The mechanism of DNA replication is conservative E. All these statements are false

If a mutation happens in the DNA that changes the T at base 10 to a C: a) What would be the mutated sequence of nucleotides in the corresponding codon in the mRNA and the anticodon in the tRNA? mRNA codon: Changes from__. tRNA anticodon: Changes from b) What is the effect of this mutation on the sequence of amino acids in a protein? Be very specific and explain WHY changes or does not change

What is/are required for the RNA poltmerase to be able to transcribe the 3 inducible enzymes in the Lac Operon? A. Lactose should be present B. Glucose should be absent C. Glucose should be present A and B A and C

While in the Inducible Operon the repressor is synthesized already in active form (i.e. ready to bind to the operator), in the Repressible Operon the repressor is synthesized in an inactive form (i.e. unable to bind to the operator unless the "correpresor tryptophan is present too). True False

Transcription starts at any site on a DNA molecule True False

4. Why the mechanism of DNA synthesis is different between the two strands of DNA? A Because the genetic code is degenerate B. Because the strands of DNA are antiparallel C. Because the strands are antiparallel and DNA polymerase can only synthesize DNA from 5' to 3¹ D. Because the strands are antiparallel and DNA polymerase can only synthesize DNA from 3 to 5' E. Because DNA replication is semi-conservative

The anticodon is the 3 nucleotides in the tRNA that bind to the codon (3 nucleotides) in the mRNA True False

Translation ends when ribosomes "read" any of the three nonsense codons on the sequence of the tRNA that is being translated True False

A mutation is a permanent change in the nucleotide sequence of RNA O True O False

In bacteria, certain mutations result in resistance to antibiotics O True O False

There has been an explosion of interest in small noncoding RNAs in plant, animal, and other genomes. Why were these small RNAs not identified and studied in earlier decades?

Robertsonian translocations occur between__ chromosomes: a. Telocentric b. Submetacentric c. Metacentric d. None of the given choices

Is its inheritance sex-linked or autosomal? The inheritance of the disorder is sex-linked because it is encoded by Y-linked genes. The inheritance of the disorder is sex-linked because it is seen only in boys. The inheritance of the disorder is autosomal because sick children are born to apparently unaffected parents. The inheritance of the disorder cannot be determined as sex-linked or autosomal.

A plant X is grown under certain conditions and the seeds have been supplied. How would one check for its totipotent character? Critically discuss each step and include diagrams, wherever necessary.

Did purified rCptA show the same major band as CptA? No, rCptA is bigger. Yes, the size of the major band was unaffected. No, rCptA is smaller.

What microbes have coupled transcription and translation? O a. Prokaryotes O b. All microbes Oc. Eukaryotes O d. Halophiles

What allows Bacterial ribosomes to use the correct start codon? O a. Introns O b. Shine-Delgarno sequence O c. ORFs O d. Codon Bias

Name two of the four mechanisms of resistance that antibiotic resistant bacteria can develop to fight antibiotics. Briefly describe how they work. According to Michael Schmidt's TED talk, of the 35 million people that will be admitted to a U.S. hospital each year, how many will contract a hospital acquired infection? Of those people that will acquire an infection, how many will die? What treatment did they apply to hospital rooms to deal with this problem? Was it effective?

A. Which two of the three modes of RNA processing are necessary to increase mRNA stability? B. Compare and contrast the ways in which each type of RNA processing you listed in part A increase mRNA stability. Be specific.

Which of the following best describes a prion? O a type of protein that can misfold, and once misfolded can cause identical proteins to also misfold to generate long protein fibrils that ultimately kill cells O prions are like viruses that lack nucleic acid, they enter host cells and make more copies of themselves. They are spread through coughing and sneezing or can contaminate food or water. O a prion is a type of protein that can cause any other type of protein to misfold, which kills the cell O a prion is any toxic protein that lacks RNA or DNA

Which set of jobs would be found in the field of disease evolution? A. genetic engineering, microbiologist, and biomanufacturer B. infectious disease specialist and virologist C. zoologist, marine biologist, and animal biologist D. biochemist and epidemiologist

Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive. This means that O carrier mothers pass the mutation to some of their sons, but not to their daughters. O both sexes are affected because new mutations occur frequently. O both sexes can be affected and can "skip" generations through carriers. O each affected individual has at least one affected parent.