General Anatomy Questions and Answers

O Small Saphenous O External Iliac O Common Iliac O Internal Iliac O Vena Cava 59 A build of fluid in the tissues is called O Fever O Swelling O Edema O Perfusion O tone 60 The production of the collectins protein to fight off yeast is known as a O Chemical Barrier O Mechanical Barrier OActive Immunity O Species Resistance
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O Small Saphenous O External Iliac O Common Iliac O Internal Iliac O Vena Cava 59 A build of fluid in the tissues is called O Fever O Swelling O Edema O Perfusion O tone 60 The production of the collectins protein to fight off yeast is known as a O Chemical Barrier O Mechanical Barrier OActive Immunity O Species Resistance
22 Smooth muscle surrounding the vessels contract during vasospasm True O False 23 The heart sits centrally in what body cavity Mediastinum O Thoracic O Abdominal O Pelvic 24 What is the average time frame for antibody production in a new pathogen exposure O 3 5 days O 7 10 days O 1 2 days O 10 14 days 120 days
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22 Smooth muscle surrounding the vessels contract during vasospasm True O False 23 The heart sits centrally in what body cavity Mediastinum O Thoracic O Abdominal O Pelvic 24 What is the average time frame for antibody production in a new pathogen exposure O 3 5 days O 7 10 days O 1 2 days O 10 14 days 120 days
Digestive System Select a region of the model or an answer below Esophagus Oral Mucosa Stomach Jejunum Cecum Rectum Descending Colon lleum Duodenum Sigmoid Colon Transverse Colon Digestive System Appendix
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Digestive System Select a region of the model or an answer below Esophagus Oral Mucosa Stomach Jejunum Cecum Rectum Descending Colon lleum Duodenum Sigmoid Colon Transverse Colon Digestive System Appendix
pathogenicity and transmissibility and will continue to do so A point mutation first identified in the delta variant changed a leucine L or Leu at position 452 in the spike protein to an arginine R or Arg hence the name L452R This mutation increases the affinity of the spike protein for the viral receptor on human cells ACE2 allowing it to infect host cells more efficiently and making the virus more transmissible This is background information for questions 12 and 13 Use a codon table such as the one shown in Video 2 3 to deduce the nucleotide change that must have occurred in the spike protein coding sequence to change an Leu codon to a Arg codon bearing in mind this was a point mutation so only one nucleotide changed For example the answer choice below described as C A means a C nucleotide in the original viral sequence changed to an A in the delta variant OG C OC A OT G OT C Question 14 5 pts
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pathogenicity and transmissibility and will continue to do so A point mutation first identified in the delta variant changed a leucine L or Leu at position 452 in the spike protein to an arginine R or Arg hence the name L452R This mutation increases the affinity of the spike protein for the viral receptor on human cells ACE2 allowing it to infect host cells more efficiently and making the virus more transmissible This is background information for questions 12 and 13 Use a codon table such as the one shown in Video 2 3 to deduce the nucleotide change that must have occurred in the spike protein coding sequence to change an Leu codon to a Arg codon bearing in mind this was a point mutation so only one nucleotide changed For example the answer choice below described as C A means a C nucleotide in the original viral sequence changed to an A in the delta variant OG C OC A OT G OT C Question 14 5 pts
48 Platelets lack a nucleus and are half the size of red blood cells O True O False
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48 Platelets lack a nucleus and are half the size of red blood cells O True O False
25 The femoral vein branches from the OSmall Saphenous External Iliac Common Iliac O Internal Iliac O Vena Cava 26 The wave on an EKG that indicates the downward deflation of the ventricle coming to rest at the end of a contraction is the OQ Wave OR Wave S Wave OT Wave 27 Which of the following pathogens inject themselves into cells and uses their own DNA to override the replication cycle O Virus O Spore O Fungus
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25 The femoral vein branches from the OSmall Saphenous External Iliac Common Iliac O Internal Iliac O Vena Cava 26 The wave on an EKG that indicates the downward deflation of the ventricle coming to rest at the end of a contraction is the OQ Wave OR Wave S Wave OT Wave 27 Which of the following pathogens inject themselves into cells and uses their own DNA to override the replication cycle O Virus O Spore O Fungus
5 Which chromosome is responsible for determining a person s immune system response O Chromosome 4 O Chromosome 5 Chromosome 6 O Chromosome 8 O Chromosome 3 6 Lymphocytes are the key cellular constituent of lymph O True O False
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5 Which chromosome is responsible for determining a person s immune system response O Chromosome 4 O Chromosome 5 Chromosome 6 O Chromosome 8 O Chromosome 3 6 Lymphocytes are the key cellular constituent of lymph O True O False
28 The valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle is the O Pulmonary Semilunar O Mitral Valve O Tricuspid Valve O Aortic Semilunar 29 Which vein runs down the medial portion of the forearm O Ulnar O Radial O Median Cubital O Basilic O Cephalic
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28 The valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle is the O Pulmonary Semilunar O Mitral Valve O Tricuspid Valve O Aortic Semilunar 29 Which vein runs down the medial portion of the forearm O Ulnar O Radial O Median Cubital O Basilic O Cephalic
17 The maximum lifespan of a red blood cell is O 120 days O 60 days O 1 year O 90 days 18 In a blood sample 45 of the volume is composed of what O Hematocrit O Plasma O White blood Cells O Platelets O Hemoglobin 19 What action pushes lymph uphill back to the thorax OSmooth Muscle Contraction O Skeletal Muscle Contraction O Nervous Impulse O Isotonic Action O Adipose Breakdown
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17 The maximum lifespan of a red blood cell is O 120 days O 60 days O 1 year O 90 days 18 In a blood sample 45 of the volume is composed of what O Hematocrit O Plasma O White blood Cells O Platelets O Hemoglobin 19 What action pushes lymph uphill back to the thorax OSmooth Muscle Contraction O Skeletal Muscle Contraction O Nervous Impulse O Isotonic Action O Adipose Breakdown
11 An irregular heart sound from the valves not closing properly is a O Myocardial infarction Myocarditis O Pericardial Effusion O Heart Murmur 12 Which of the following is a normal range for platelets O 10 000 15 000 130 000 360 000 O 1 300 000 3 600 000 O 13 000 36 000
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11 An irregular heart sound from the valves not closing properly is a O Myocardial infarction Myocarditis O Pericardial Effusion O Heart Murmur 12 Which of the following is a normal range for platelets O 10 000 15 000 130 000 360 000 O 1 300 000 3 600 000 O 13 000 36 000
1 Which of the following organs are not yet able to be transplanted O Heart O Pancreas O Liver O Kidney O Eye 2 Which artery primarily serves the large intestine O Renal O Inferior Mesenteric O Common Iliac O Superior Mesenteric O Celiac
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1 Which of the following organs are not yet able to be transplanted O Heart O Pancreas O Liver O Kidney O Eye 2 Which artery primarily serves the large intestine O Renal O Inferior Mesenteric O Common Iliac O Superior Mesenteric O Celiac
7 The internal pacemaker of the heart is the O SA Node OAV Node O Juctional Fibers O Purkinje Fibers 8 A blood pressure of 189 95 would be considered average O True O False
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7 The internal pacemaker of the heart is the O SA Node OAV Node O Juctional Fibers O Purkinje Fibers 8 A blood pressure of 189 95 would be considered average O True O False
3 The two superior chambers of the heart are the Atria O Ventricles O Semilunars O Aortic 4 Which white blood cell is responsible for phagocytosis of live pathogens O Lymphocyte O Eosinophils O Neutrophils T Cells Basophils
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3 The two superior chambers of the heart are the Atria O Ventricles O Semilunars O Aortic 4 Which white blood cell is responsible for phagocytosis of live pathogens O Lymphocyte O Eosinophils O Neutrophils T Cells Basophils
23 are structures in muscle fibers that shorten to result in a contraction O Plasma membranes O Connective tissues Myocytes O Sarcomeres O Intercalated discs 24 The main function of the epidermal layer is O Provide protection from microorganisms O Prevent water loss O All of the above O None of the above
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23 are structures in muscle fibers that shorten to result in a contraction O Plasma membranes O Connective tissues Myocytes O Sarcomeres O Intercalated discs 24 The main function of the epidermal layer is O Provide protection from microorganisms O Prevent water loss O All of the above O None of the above
17 Which of the following is a major structure of nucleus O Chromatin O Histones O Ribosomes O Nucleosomes 18 The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are O Intervertebral discs O Intercalated discs Motor junctions O Neuromuscular plates 19 The muscle that opposes an action is the O Mediator O Antagonist O Agonist O Synergist
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17 Which of the following is a major structure of nucleus O Chromatin O Histones O Ribosomes O Nucleosomes 18 The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are O Intervertebral discs O Intercalated discs Motor junctions O Neuromuscular plates 19 The muscle that opposes an action is the O Mediator O Antagonist O Agonist O Synergist
40 How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone 02 3 04 0 5 41 A muscle that assists the agonist is the O Mediator O Antagonist O Synergist Prime mover 42 Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called O Elevation Eversion Abduction Lateral rotation
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40 How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone 02 3 04 0 5 41 A muscle that assists the agonist is the O Mediator O Antagonist O Synergist Prime mover 42 Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called O Elevation Eversion Abduction Lateral rotation
20 Which of the following phases is characterized by DNA synthesis O GO O G1 O G2 OS 21 The orbicularis oculi muscle connects to which bones O Nasal bone Frontal bone Maxilla All of the above O 22 The soft spot on an infant s skull is often called what O Fontanelle Suture Line O Articulation O Joint
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20 Which of the following phases is characterized by DNA synthesis O GO O G1 O G2 OS 21 The orbicularis oculi muscle connects to which bones O Nasal bone Frontal bone Maxilla All of the above O 22 The soft spot on an infant s skull is often called what O Fontanelle Suture Line O Articulation O Joint
34 The atlas of the cervical vertebrae can be found where O C1 O C2 O C3 O T4 35 What serves as a messenger for the nucleus O DNA O rRNA O mRNA O RER 36 Which of these best describes the shape of the frontalis muscle O Triangle O Circle O Pentagon O Quadrilateral
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34 The atlas of the cervical vertebrae can be found where O C1 O C2 O C3 O T4 35 What serves as a messenger for the nucleus O DNA O rRNA O mRNA O RER 36 Which of these best describes the shape of the frontalis muscle O Triangle O Circle O Pentagon O Quadrilateral
37 The type of endocytosis used by macrophages an immune cell is called O Pinocytosis O Phagocytosis O Fluid phase endocytosis O Receptor mediated endocytosis 38 To move an object the sarcomere in muscle fibers must lengthen O True O False 39 Which of the following muscles is the longest O Gluteus maximus O Digitorum longus O Sartorius O Biceps brachii O Subclavius
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37 The type of endocytosis used by macrophages an immune cell is called O Pinocytosis O Phagocytosis O Fluid phase endocytosis O Receptor mediated endocytosis 38 To move an object the sarcomere in muscle fibers must lengthen O True O False 39 Which of the following muscles is the longest O Gluteus maximus O Digitorum longus O Sartorius O Biceps brachii O Subclavius
55 Which muscle contracts to turn the head to the opposite side and bend it toward the chest O Scalene O Stemocleidomastold Platysma O Risorius O Mentalis 56 Anatomically what can pronation or supination occur with O Calves O Forearms O The entire body O Both B and C 57 Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments O Fovea capitis O Lesser trochanter O Head O Medial condyle
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55 Which muscle contracts to turn the head to the opposite side and bend it toward the chest O Scalene O Stemocleidomastold Platysma O Risorius O Mentalis 56 Anatomically what can pronation or supination occur with O Calves O Forearms O The entire body O Both B and C 57 Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments O Fovea capitis O Lesser trochanter O Head O Medial condyle
78 Spindles are attached to chromosome centromeres that are aligned in the center of the cell O True False 79 What muscle is responsible for extension of the four digits of the hand O Palmaris longus O Extensor radialis longus O Extensor digitorium O Adductor pollics O Lumbricals 80 Collagen lends O Elasticity Structure Color Produces sebum to the skin
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78 Spindles are attached to chromosome centromeres that are aligned in the center of the cell O True False 79 What muscle is responsible for extension of the four digits of the hand O Palmaris longus O Extensor radialis longus O Extensor digitorium O Adductor pollics O Lumbricals 80 Collagen lends O Elasticity Structure Color Produces sebum to the skin
25 Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if O Vitamin D O Vitamin K Calcitonin O Fluoride 26 Which of the following muscles are not in the pelvic girdle O Adductor longus O Popliteus O Pectineus Obturator 27 Which function does the latissimus perform for the arm Adduction O Extension O Internal rotation All of the above is lacking
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25 Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if O Vitamin D O Vitamin K Calcitonin O Fluoride 26 Which of the following muscles are not in the pelvic girdle O Adductor longus O Popliteus O Pectineus Obturator 27 Which function does the latissimus perform for the arm Adduction O Extension O Internal rotation All of the above is lacking
Medial condyle 58 Sesamoid bones are found embedded in O Joints O Muscles O Ligaments O Tendons 59 Which of the following muscles originate from the zygomatic bone O Risorius O Mentalis O Procerus O Zygomaticus Masseter 60 The skeletal system can be divided into two divisions the axial and appendicular divisions O True False
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Medial condyle 58 Sesamoid bones are found embedded in O Joints O Muscles O Ligaments O Tendons 59 Which of the following muscles originate from the zygomatic bone O Risorius O Mentalis O Procerus O Zygomaticus Masseter 60 The skeletal system can be divided into two divisions the axial and appendicular divisions O True False
O Sacrum O Thorax O Coccyx O Pelvis me for which vertebral region 68 The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures O Inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus O Pectineal line and arcuate line Lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch O Anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine 69 Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of O Spinal erector muscles O Muscles of mastication O Oblique and rectus muscles O Glossal muscles O Pectoralis muscles
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O Sacrum O Thorax O Coccyx O Pelvis me for which vertebral region 68 The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures O Inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus O Pectineal line and arcuate line Lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch O Anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine 69 Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of O Spinal erector muscles O Muscles of mastication O Oblique and rectus muscles O Glossal muscles O Pectoralis muscles
70 Which of the following can be found in areas of movement O Hematopoiesis O Cartilage O Yellow marrow O Red marrow 71 Muscle tissue is always voluntary in movement O True O False 72 Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones however the bones in the wrist are categorized O Flat bones O Short bones O Sesamoid bones O Irregular bones
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70 Which of the following can be found in areas of movement O Hematopoiesis O Cartilage O Yellow marrow O Red marrow 71 Muscle tissue is always voluntary in movement O True O False 72 Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones however the bones in the wrist are categorized O Flat bones O Short bones O Sesamoid bones O Irregular bones
58 The serratus muscle is located under the trapezius muscle O True False 59 What is the largest most prominent organelle in the cell O Nucleus Mitochondria Cytoplasm O Chromatin 60 In observing epithelial cells under a microscope the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narr and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue Columnar Stratified Squamous Transitional
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58 The serratus muscle is located under the trapezius muscle O True False 59 What is the largest most prominent organelle in the cell O Nucleus Mitochondria Cytoplasm O Chromatin 60 In observing epithelial cells under a microscope the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narr and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue Columnar Stratified Squamous Transitional
30 Which of the following lines the body cavities exposed to the external environment O Epithelial tissue Connective tissue O Nervous tissue O Muscle tissue 31 Yellow marrow contains fat cells giving it its name and color O True O False 32 Which of the following is not a fontanelle O Occipital O Superior
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30 Which of the following lines the body cavities exposed to the external environment O Epithelial tissue Connective tissue O Nervous tissue O Muscle tissue 31 Yellow marrow contains fat cells giving it its name and color O True O False 32 Which of the following is not a fontanelle O Occipital O Superior
79 The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bones to the O Frontal bone O Occipital bone O Other parietal bone O Temporal bone 80 Which bone is the triangular shaped bone that forms the nasal septum O Vomer O Lacrimal O Palatine O Nasal Conchae 81 Infant soft spots allow for compression during birth O True Folo
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79 The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bones to the O Frontal bone O Occipital bone O Other parietal bone O Temporal bone 80 Which bone is the triangular shaped bone that forms the nasal septum O Vomer O Lacrimal O Palatine O Nasal Conchae 81 Infant soft spots allow for compression during birth O True Folo
45 Which of the following is a major structure of nucleus O Chromatin O Histones O Ribosomes O Nucleosomes 46 The frontalis muscle is located on the O Back of the skull O Forehead O Temple O Chin O Bridge of nose 47 How many main muscles are there of the eye 04 06 2
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45 Which of the following is a major structure of nucleus O Chromatin O Histones O Ribosomes O Nucleosomes 46 The frontalis muscle is located on the O Back of the skull O Forehead O Temple O Chin O Bridge of nose 47 How many main muscles are there of the eye 04 06 2
21 Hannah injuries herself while mountain climbing and the health professional who examines her tells her that she has dislocated her scapula What part of Hannah s body did she injure O Her arm Her leg Her hip O Her thumb O Her shoulder 22 What is the most abundant type of tissue in the body O Nervous O Epithelial Muscle O Connective
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21 Hannah injuries herself while mountain climbing and the health professional who examines her tells her that she has dislocated her scapula What part of Hannah s body did she injure O Her arm Her leg Her hip O Her thumb O Her shoulder 22 What is the most abundant type of tissue in the body O Nervous O Epithelial Muscle O Connective
36 The category of a stratified tissue is based on the cells of the free surface O True False 37 The subscapularis is part of which structure O Pelvic girdle O Head and neck O Hand O Pectoral girdle O Leg 38 Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident O Storage of minerals O Protection of internal organs O Facilitation of movement O Fat storage
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36 The category of a stratified tissue is based on the cells of the free surface O True False 37 The subscapularis is part of which structure O Pelvic girdle O Head and neck O Hand O Pectoral girdle O Leg 38 Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident O Storage of minerals O Protection of internal organs O Facilitation of movement O Fat storage
25 Floating ribs have no connection with what O Sternum O Vertebral ribs O Spine Sternum and vertebral ribs Vertebral ribs and spine 26 A muscle that causes an action is the Mediator Agonist Antagonist O Synergist
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25 Floating ribs have no connection with what O Sternum O Vertebral ribs O Spine Sternum and vertebral ribs Vertebral ribs and spine 26 A muscle that causes an action is the Mediator Agonist Antagonist O Synergist
17 What resists the tension on the cell O Microtubule Intermediate filament Microfilament O Cytoskeleton 18 Striations cylindrical cells and multiple nuclei are observed in Skeletal muscle only Cardiac muscle only OSmooth muscle only Skeletal and cardiac muscles
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17 What resists the tension on the cell O Microtubule Intermediate filament Microfilament O Cytoskeleton 18 Striations cylindrical cells and multiple nuclei are observed in Skeletal muscle only Cardiac muscle only OSmooth muscle only Skeletal and cardiac muscles
1 The skin layer that consists of stratified squamous epithelium is the Dermis O Epidermis Subcutaneous sub Q Papillary layer
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1 The skin layer that consists of stratified squamous epithelium is the Dermis O Epidermis Subcutaneous sub Q Papillary layer
7 Bones grow in length due to activity in the Epiphyseal plate Perichondrium O Periosteum O Medullary cavity
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7 Bones grow in length due to activity in the Epiphyseal plate Perichondrium O Periosteum O Medullary cavity
6 The skin layer that consists of dense connective tissue is the O Reticular layer O Epidermis Subcutaneous sub Q Papillary layer
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6 The skin layer that consists of dense connective tissue is the O Reticular layer O Epidermis Subcutaneous sub Q Papillary layer
4 The popliteus is located on the posterior side of the knee True False
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4 The popliteus is located on the posterior side of the knee True False
CLICK TO EXPLORE Axial Muscles Muscles of the Back and Abdomen Select a region of the model or an answer below Right External Oblique Left Internal Intercostals Left Serratus Posterior Inferior Right Splenius Capitis Left Rectus Abdominis Diaphragm Left External Intercostals Left Internal Oblique Right Longissimus Thoracis
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CLICK TO EXPLORE Axial Muscles Muscles of the Back and Abdomen Select a region of the model or an answer below Right External Oblique Left Internal Intercostals Left Serratus Posterior Inferior Right Splenius Capitis Left Rectus Abdominis Diaphragm Left External Intercostals Left Internal Oblique Right Longissimus Thoracis
Bones of the Thoracic Cage Select a region of the model or an answer below Xiphoid Process Atlas CLICK TO EXPLORE Axial Skeleton Axis Manubrium of Sternum Left 12th Floating Rib Sternum Body
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Bones of the Thoracic Cage Select a region of the model or an answer below Xiphoid Process Atlas CLICK TO EXPLORE Axial Skeleton Axis Manubrium of Sternum Left 12th Floating Rib Sternum Body
Bones Types Select a region of the model or an answer below Flat bone Long bone Sutural bone Irregular bone Sesamoid bone Skeletal System Short bone
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Bones Types Select a region of the model or an answer below Flat bone Long bone Sutural bone Irregular bone Sesamoid bone Skeletal System Short bone
DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE Rough ER Centrioles Ribosome Golgi Apparatus Smooth ER
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DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE DRAG ANSWER HERE Rough ER Centrioles Ribosome Golgi Apparatus Smooth ER
2 6 vilat is the Movement of the nose Resonance chamber for speech Normung Filter moisten and warm air OB and C A B and C cture 17 10 11
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2 6 vilat is the Movement of the nose Resonance chamber for speech Normung Filter moisten and warm air OB and C A B and C cture 17 10 11
What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles Rotator cuff ADAM Teres major teres minor infraspinatus supraspinatus Teres major supraspinatus infraspinatus deltoid none are correct Teres major supraspinatus teres minor coracobrachialis Teres Minor Supraspinatus l
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What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles Rotator cuff ADAM Teres major teres minor infraspinatus supraspinatus Teres major supraspinatus infraspinatus deltoid none are correct Teres major supraspinatus teres minor coracobrachialis Teres Minor Supraspinatus l
The second order neurons of the olfactory pathway are located in which region of the diagram K U N 16200172 Ren A B CDE FGHIL
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The second order neurons of the olfactory pathway are located in which region of the diagram K U N 16200172 Ren A B CDE FGHIL
OH OI OJ H Which cranial nerve in the diagram is involved with speech and swallowing and has a purely motor function A B DEFG K K
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OH OI OJ H Which cranial nerve in the diagram is involved with speech and swallowing and has a purely motor function A B DEFG K K
Social support is linked to a person s ability to effectively cope with stress True
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Social support is linked to a person s ability to effectively cope with stress True
Label the following figures phases hormones names of follicles and describe what is happening during each phase in each graph a d Dy Cork a b c d
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Label the following figures phases hormones names of follicles and describe what is happening during each phase in each graph a d Dy Cork a b c d
Current international economic problems and challenges Please write this in 2000 word must Also provide the references
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Current international economic problems and challenges Please write this in 2000 word must Also provide the references
together to perform one or more functions In this question match the body system schematic with the correct name
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together to perform one or more functions In this question match the body system schematic with the correct name
Based on the prefixes discussed in Part 3 video which of the following terms means absence or near absence of oxygen content A Hypoxia B Pyrexia C Cachexia D Anoxia OE Hyperoxia point
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Based on the prefixes discussed in Part 3 video which of the following terms means absence or near absence of oxygen content A Hypoxia B Pyrexia C Cachexia D Anoxia OE Hyperoxia point