Anatomy and Physiology Questions

pathogenicity and transmissibility and will continue to do so A point mutation first identified in the delta variant changed a leucine L or Leu at position 452 in the spike protein to an arginine R or Arg hence the name L452R This mutation increases the affinity of the spike protein for the viral receptor on human cells ACE2 allowing it to infect host cells more efficiently and making the virus more transmissible This is background information for questions 12 and 13 Use a codon table such as the one shown in Video 2 3 to deduce the nucleotide change that must have occurred in the spike protein coding sequence to change an Leu codon to a Arg codon bearing in mind this was a point mutation so only one nucleotide changed For example the answer choice below described as C A means a C nucleotide in the original viral sequence changed to an A in the delta variant OG C OC A OT G OT C Question 14 5 pts

I II III 1 1 1 Select 1 4 Select 11 3 Select 1 11 4 Select 2 O 2 3 This pedigree shows the incidence of an autosomal recessive trait in a human family Choose from the drop down menu to report the probability of carrier status for 1 3 4 5

33 Which lymph organ is responsible for T cell production until puberty O Spleen O Thymus Pancreas Liver Stomach 34 The fibers that connect the messages between the SA node and AV node are referred to as the O SA Node O AV Node O Juctional Fibers O Purkinje Fibers 35 The fibers that connect the AV node to the ventricle walls are referred to as the O SA Node O AV Node O Juctional Fibers O Purkinje Fibers

30 The lymphatic system is a closed circulatory system O True False 31 The Circle of Willis can be found in the abdomen True False 32 The medical term for a heart attack is a Bradycardia O Tachycardia O Heart Murmur O Myocardial Infarction

48 Platelets lack a nucleus and are half the size of red blood cells O True O False

42 Which of the following methods is considered natural passive immunity O Mother giving immunity to a fetus in the womb O Body producing antibodies to natural exposure O Person receiving vaccines Person receiving antibody serum Person injecting themselves with antigens 43 Immunity is characterized by the development of self O Antibodies O Cells Antigens O Amino Acids O Pathogens 44 The internal and external jugulars are major arteries in the body True O False

39 Which of the following vessels would be found in the knee O Common Iliac O Brachial O Popliteal O Dorsal Pedis O Anterior Tibial 40 The spleen is located in the abdominal cavity behind what organ O Liver O Kidney O Stomach O Heart Bladder 41 The valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle is the O Pulmonary Semilunar O Mitral Valve O Tricuspid Valve Aortic Semilunar

36 Which of the following red blood cell counts are within normal range for any gender or age 4 900 000 O 4 500 O 350 000 O 6 500 000 37 Lymph nodes are not likely to come in contact with pathogens True False 38 The wave on an EKG that indicates the relaxation of the atria and the point right before ventricular contraction is the OQ Wave E Samsung O 2016

45 The heart sits centrally in what body cavity O Mediastinum O Thoracic O Abdominal O Pelvic 46 What portion of the spleen is responsible for filtration O Pulp O Medulla O Cortex O Hiatus 47 Lymph nodes absorb and deliver fats to the bloodstream O True

15 Which of the following substances can be found in lymph O Oxygen Glucose O Amino Acids O Lymphocytes O All of the above 16 What is responsible for carrying blood away from the heart O Veins O Arteries O Capillaries O Coronaries

25 The femoral vein branches from the OSmall Saphenous External Iliac Common Iliac O Internal Iliac O Vena Cava 26 The wave on an EKG that indicates the downward deflation of the ventricle coming to rest at the end of a contraction is the OQ Wave OR Wave S Wave OT Wave 27 Which of the following pathogens inject themselves into cells and uses their own DNA to override the replication cycle O Virus O Spore O Fungus

5 Which chromosome is responsible for determining a person s immune system response O Chromosome 4 O Chromosome 5 Chromosome 6 O Chromosome 8 O Chromosome 3 6 Lymphocytes are the key cellular constituent of lymph O True O False

22 A check point where lymph is filtered and checked for pathogens is called a O Lymph Vessel O Lymph Node Lymph Trunk O Lymph Capillary O Interstitial Space 23 The substance produced by T cells that direct T and B cell activity is called O Antibodies O Cytokines O Collecins O Interleukin 1 O Clotting Factor X 24 Which of the following is a type of Innate defense O Species resistance O Fever O Inflammation O Chernical Barriers

28 The valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle is the O Pulmonary Semilunar O Mitral Valve O Tricuspid Valve O Aortic Semilunar 29 Which vein runs down the medial portion of the forearm O Ulnar O Radial O Median Cubital O Basilic O Cephalic

20 What type of cells produces antibodies to pathogens O Neutrophils O Erythrocytes B cells Eosinophils O Monocytes 21 If the spleen detects pathogens the spleen releases OT Cells OB Cells O Delta Cells O Thrombocytes Both A and B

17 The maximum lifespan of a red blood cell is O 120 days O 60 days O 1 year O 90 days 18 In a blood sample 45 of the volume is composed of what O Hematocrit O Plasma O White blood Cells O Platelets O Hemoglobin 19 What action pushes lymph uphill back to the thorax OSmooth Muscle Contraction O Skeletal Muscle Contraction O Nervous Impulse O Isotonic Action O Adipose Breakdown

13 Which of the following is NOT a pathogen O Virus O Spore O Interleukin O Bacteria O Parasite 14 All fevers are bad and should be treated O True False

11 An irregular heart sound from the valves not closing properly is a O Myocardial infarction Myocarditis O Pericardial Effusion O Heart Murmur 12 Which of the following is a normal range for platelets O 10 000 15 000 130 000 360 000 O 1 300 000 3 600 000 O 13 000 36 000

9 The first step in the cardiac cycle is for deoxygenated blood to come into the heart from the inferior and superior vena cava What is the next step in the cycle O Deoxygenated blood goes into the left atrium O Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium O Deoxygenated blood enters the left ventricle O Deoxygenated blood enters the right ventricle 10 The production of the collectins protein to fight off yeast is known as a O Chemical Barrier O Mechanical Barrier O Active Immunity O Species Resistance O Adaptive Defense

1 Which of the following organs are not yet able to be transplanted O Heart O Pancreas O Liver O Kidney O Eye 2 Which artery primarily serves the large intestine O Renal O Inferior Mesenteric O Common Iliac O Superior Mesenteric O Celiac

7 The internal pacemaker of the heart is the O SA Node OAV Node O Juctional Fibers O Purkinje Fibers 8 A blood pressure of 189 95 would be considered average O True O False

3 The two superior chambers of the heart are the Atria O Ventricles O Semilunars O Aortic 4 Which white blood cell is responsible for phagocytosis of live pathogens O Lymphocyte O Eosinophils O Neutrophils T Cells Basophils

I C Lymphatic System Select a region of the model or an answer below Spleen Thymus Adenoid Tonsil Left Popliteal Lymph Nodes Right Superficial Inguinal Lymph Nodes Colic Lymph Nodes

28 Which of the following is true regarding the radius bone O is found on the medial side of the forearm O Has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna O Does not articulate with any of the carpal bones O Has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end 29 Which of the following pelvic muscles are responsible for both the flexion and lateral rotation of the thigh O Adductor longus and adductor brevis O Psoas major and iliacus Olliacus and pectineus O Adductor magnus and adductor brevis 30 Which muscle extends the elbow O Biceps brachii O Brachialis O Triceps brachii

5 A cartilaginous joint is expected to be O Freely moveable O Semi moveable O Immoveable None of the above 6 Dendritic cells are commonly found in the O Stratum spinosum Stratum granulosum Stratum basale Stratum corneum 7 A typical vertebra has A vertebral foramen that passes through the body A superior articular process that moves down to articulate with the superior portion of the next lowe O Lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process O A pair of laterally projecting spinous processes

14 Which of the following is a function of the thoracic cage O Protection of internal organs O Attachment for muscle of respiration O Support of the spine O All of the above O None of the above 15 Movement of a body region in a circular fashion with one end of the body region remaining stationary is what type of motion O Rotation O Elevation O Abduction O Circumduction 16 The reddish brown color of muscle comes from what O Myoglobin O Calcium O Actin

23 are structures in muscle fibers that shorten to result in a contraction O Plasma membranes O Connective tissues Myocytes O Sarcomeres O Intercalated discs 24 The main function of the epidermal layer is O Provide protection from microorganisms O Prevent water loss O All of the above O None of the above

17 Which of the following is a major structure of nucleus O Chromatin O Histones O Ribosomes O Nucleosomes 18 The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are O Intervertebral discs O Intercalated discs Motor junctions O Neuromuscular plates 19 The muscle that opposes an action is the O Mediator O Antagonist O Agonist O Synergist

43 Which bone forms the medial wall of the orbit and hold supports the tear ducts Vomer O Lacrimal O Palatine Nasal Conchae 44 What pelvic muscle is responsible for adduction of the thigh and lateral rotation of the leg O Adductor longus O Adductor brevis O Obturator O Pectineus Olliacus 45 The gets its name from secretory granules in their cytoplasm O Stratum lucidum O Stratum spinosum O Stratum granulosum O Stratum corneum

40 How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone 02 3 04 0 5 41 A muscle that assists the agonist is the O Mediator O Antagonist O Synergist Prime mover 42 Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called O Elevation Eversion Abduction Lateral rotation

20 Which of the following phases is characterized by DNA synthesis O GO O G1 O G2 OS 21 The orbicularis oculi muscle connects to which bones O Nasal bone Frontal bone Maxilla All of the above O 22 The soft spot on an infant s skull is often called what O Fontanelle Suture Line O Articulation O Joint

34 The atlas of the cervical vertebrae can be found where O C1 O C2 O C3 O T4 35 What serves as a messenger for the nucleus O DNA O rRNA O mRNA O RER 36 Which of these best describes the shape of the frontalis muscle O Triangle O Circle O Pentagon O Quadrilateral

31 What is the longest and heaviest bone in the body O Humerus O Femur O Tibia O Fibula O Coxa 32 A synergist assists an agonist in movement O True O False 33 Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement O Saddle joint O Hinge joint O Condyloid joint O Ball and socket joint

37 The type of endocytosis used by macrophages an immune cell is called O Pinocytosis O Phagocytosis O Fluid phase endocytosis O Receptor mediated endocytosis 38 To move an object the sarcomere in muscle fibers must lengthen O True O False 39 Which of the following muscles is the longest O Gluteus maximus O Digitorum longus O Sartorius O Biceps brachii O Subclavius

8 The category of a stratified tissue is based on the cells of the free surface True O False 9 Which of these is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism O Lactic acid O Acetylcholine O ATP Sarcoplasm O White fibers 10 What is the posterior portion of a vertebrae that sticks out referred to as O Facet O Spinous process Vertebral body O Lamina

52 The epiphyseal plate is also known as the growth plate O True O False 53 The organelle that has an inner membrane that forms cristae is the O Nucleus O Peroxisome Golgi Apparatus O Mitochondria 54 The muscle responsible for the lifting of the scapula is the O Rhomboid major O Trapezius O Levator scapulae O Latissimus dorsi O Serratus

55 Which muscle contracts to turn the head to the opposite side and bend it toward the chest O Scalene O Stemocleidomastold Platysma O Risorius O Mentalis 56 Anatomically what can pronation or supination occur with O Calves O Forearms O The entire body O Both B and C 57 Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments O Fovea capitis O Lesser trochanter O Head O Medial condyle

49 The bones that form the wrist are the O Carpals Tarsals O Metacarpals O Metatarsals O Phalanges 50 Which of the following is NOT a component of the skeletal system Bones O Nerves O Joints O Cartilages 51 Which type of glands secrete in response to pain fear or sexual arousal O Apocrine glands O Merocrine glands Sebaceous glands O Mammary glands

78 Spindles are attached to chromosome centromeres that are aligned in the center of the cell O True False 79 What muscle is responsible for extension of the four digits of the hand O Palmaris longus O Extensor radialis longus O Extensor digitorium O Adductor pollics O Lumbricals 80 Collagen lends O Elasticity Structure Color Produces sebum to the skin

25 Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if O Vitamin D O Vitamin K Calcitonin O Fluoride 26 Which of the following muscles are not in the pelvic girdle O Adductor longus O Popliteus O Pectineus Obturator 27 Which function does the latissimus perform for the arm Adduction O Extension O Internal rotation All of the above is lacking

muscle is commonly known as the shin muscle O Tibialis anterior O Sartorius Plantaris O Popliteus 65 What muscle runs from the distal humerus to the coronoid process of the ulna and is responsible for flexion of th elbow O Supinator O Briceps brachil Triceps brachii O Brachialis Pronator 66 Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue They develop from mesenchymal cells They are surrounded by osteoid O They travel through the capillaries Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers

2 The fibula articulates with what O Femur O Tibia O Patella O Navicular 3 The orbicularis oris is called the Serpentine muscle O Kissing muscle Divider muscle O Sketching muscle 4 The diaphysis contains O The metaphysis O Fat stores O Spongy bone O Compact bone

Medial condyle 58 Sesamoid bones are found embedded in O Joints O Muscles O Ligaments O Tendons 59 Which of the following muscles originate from the zygomatic bone O Risorius O Mentalis O Procerus O Zygomaticus Masseter 60 The skeletal system can be divided into two divisions the axial and appendicular divisions O True False

O Sacrum O Thorax O Coccyx O Pelvis me for which vertebral region 68 The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures O Inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus O Pectineal line and arcuate line Lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch O Anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine 69 Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of O Spinal erector muscles O Muscles of mastication O Oblique and rectus muscles O Glossal muscles O Pectoralis muscles

61 What structure contributes to the knee joint O Lateral malleolus of the fibula O Tibial tuberosity O Medial condyle of the tibia O Lateral epicondyle of the femur 62 Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column O Vomer O Atlas O Maxilla O Xiphoid Process 63 Ion pumps and phagocytosis are both examples of O Endocytosis O Passive transport O Active transport O Facilitated diffusion

81 Under the microscope a tissue specimen shows cells located in spaces scattered in a transparent background This is probably O Loose connectile tissue Andon O Bonne 82 Skeletal muscle is composed of very hard working cells Which organelles do you expect to find in abundance in skeletal muscle cell O Nuclei O Striations O Golgi bodies O Mitochondria 83 What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula O Acromial process O Coracold process O Supraglenoid tubercle Connia

70 Which of the following can be found in areas of movement O Hematopoiesis O Cartilage O Yellow marrow O Red marrow 71 Muscle tissue is always voluntary in movement O True O False 72 Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones however the bones in the wrist are categorized O Flat bones O Short bones O Sesamoid bones O Irregular bones

85 Scarring patches injuries and never harms the body O True O False 86 Functions of muscles include O Skeletal movement O Posture support Beating of the heart Movement of food O O All of the above 87 The two lateral processes on a vertebrae are called transverse processes O True False

58 The serratus muscle is located under the trapezius muscle O True False 59 What is the largest most prominent organelle in the cell O Nucleus Mitochondria Cytoplasm O Chromatin 60 In observing epithelial cells under a microscope the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narr and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue Columnar Stratified Squamous Transitional

52 A sarcomere is best described as A group of fascicles A group of muscle fibers A group of myocytes A group of sarcomeres O Units within muscle fibers 53 The nucleolus and rough ER share which of the following features O Protein lined membrane pores A double cell membrane O The presence of ribosomes O The production of cellular energy 54 Each hand in the body has 14 phalanges giving the body a total of 28 phalanges in the True False