Biology Questions

b The frequency of the wave The wavelength of the wave d Amplitude of the largest peal 43 Surface rocks at low temperature are most likely to a Experience brittle deformation b Experience plastic deformation C Have a high yield point d Be very ductile creating folds 44 With destructive interference the seismic waves C a Causes wave amplification linked to greater destructiveness Creates the initial trough that arrive before a tsunami event Causes landslides to occur on unstable slopes d Cancel each other out creating a flat line b C C 45 Flood basalts form from a Only powerful eruptions with a lot of lava flows b Fissure eruptions Stratocone or composite volcanoes d Cinder cones volcanoes 46 Seismic waves move fastest through a Hard consolidated bedrock b Soft alluvium soils c Liquids d Attenuation 47 Triangulation is used to a Find the path of greatest rupture b Show the amount of attenuation Measure the amount of fault rupture d The location of the epicenter

c Compressive stress the hanging wall moves down relative d Compressive stress the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall 31 Elastic deformation may occur when rocks are subject to a Compressive stress b Tensional stress C Shearing stress d Any type of stress 32 Rocks in which elastic deformation occurs Return to their original shape when stress is released Remain in their deformed shape when stress is released Become fractured but retain their original shape d Show no response to stress 33 Rocks in which plastic deformation occurs a b a Tensional stress the b Tensional stress the hanging wall moves up a C b Return to their original shape when stress is released Remain in their deformed shape when stress is released Become fractured but retain their original shape d Show no response to stress 34 Stress is the force applied to rock per unit area strain is a Only ductile b A change in shape or volume c Only brittle resulting in a fracture d Mitigated by an increase in stress 5 Strain is deformation resulting in a Stress b Slip C Magnitude d Cohesion

The wave length of a wave is a The distance between disturbances b How large is the disturbance c How destructive the wave will be d The waves frequency

6 With a fault when displacement is not apparent at earth s surface this faul a Blind fault b C Dip slip fault d Normal or gravity fault 7 At transform plate boundaries what kind of faults would be present Strike slip fault a Normal faults b Vertical reverse faults c Blind faults d Horizontal strike slip faults 8 The most powerful mega thrust earthquakes occur at a Divergent plate boundaries b Subduction zones c Along strike slip faults such as the San Andres d Continental collision zones such as Himalayas 9 Benioff zones are a Progressively deeper earthquakes at subduction zones b Zones of active shaking along strike slip faults such as California Another name for blind faults because we can t see them coming d Shallow focus earthquakes at zones of continental collision C 10 Earthquake warning systems are based on a The fact that P waves are faster than S waves b The fact that Love waves are faster than Rayleigh waves c Electrical resistivity d The initial run up of seismic waves 11 Technically a forecast would be a range of certainty but a prediction would be a Specifying only the date of an event b Specifying only the time of the event c Specifying only the size of the event d All the above

12 Carrying capacity means The maximum number of people the environment can contain without degradation b The ability of a fault to hold stress C Population momentum d Indirect result of exponential growth 13 The earthquake focus is a Where brittle deformation occurs b Another term for the hypocenter C Where epicenter is located above this point on the surface d All the above a 14 Deep focused earthquakes only occur at a Benioff zones at subduction plate boundaries b At powerful intra plate earthquakes Divergent plate boundaries in the ocean C d Thrust faulting in mountain ranges 15 The plate tectonic setting most commonly associated with powerful explosive Plinian a eruptions would be Rift zones with decompressional melting b Subduction zones c Transform plate boundaries as shown in the movie Volcano d None of the above 16 A Ghost Forest is a A bad Halloween movie b A drowned forest from subsidence c A forest destroyed by volcanic eruption as with Mt St Helens d A forest destroyed with major flooding from a hurricane 7 Hydraulic chilling means a People hanging out at a hot springs b Water in soil freezing to ice C Permafrost d Cooling a lava flow with sea water

B Page 246 Although the Halley Bay population of Emperor penguins was declining prior to 2016 it completely disappeared from 2016 2018 Which statement best describes what happened to the penguins Estimated number of breeding pairs 13 1 Describe the selection Correct Answer s 25 000 20 000 15 000 10 000 5 000 04 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 Year Drag appropriate answer s here Climate change resulted in severe storms that killed the femaler Halley Bay Dawson Lambton Early ice breakun likolu 2018

Even with the most recent advances in microscopy it is impossible to image atom O True O False

ne coll bacteria is suspended in water which has a viscosity of r 0 8 x 10 N s m and a density of 1000 kg m Assuming the water is absolutely still no net velocity the bacteria will fall downward unde he influence of gravity Assuming the bacteria has a mass of 680 femtograms 1 femtogram 10 18 kg and a diameter of 0 25 um what is the absolute magnitude of the terminal velocity of this bacteria in water Ignore buoyancy for the purposes of this problem Submit Answer Tries 0 99 What is the absolute magnitude of the terminal velocity for this bacteria if it were falling through air 1 989 x 10 Nes m and a density of 1 2 kg m Submit Answer Tries 0 99 How important is the force of gravity to the motion of bacteria through air compared to the force exerted by the motion of the air itself In other words consider the terminal velocity of the bacteria and compan o your estimate of the speed with which air moves in a typical room The force of gravity completely dominates the forces acting on the bacteria i e the motion of air can be ignored The motion of air completely dominates the forces acting on the bacteria i e gravity can be ignored Tod

What is the START codon Can you locate the START codon above What is the function of the Shine Dalgarno Sequence Where is it located The Shine Dalgarno sequence is complementary to what What does the START codon code for What are the STOP codons Can you locate a STOP codon above

Which of the following best describes how the process of crossing over during meiosis leads to an increase of genetic diversity During Prophase 1 sister chromatids separate from each other resulting in exchange of genetic material During Prophase 1 DNA replication takes place and homologous chromosomes trade places with each other O During Prohase1 DNA segments are exchanged between homologous chromosomes resulting in different combinations of genes O During Prophase 2 fragments of DNA break and attach to teh ends of other chromosomes resulting in different gene sequences

Programmed cell death may be initiated by which of the following O cyclin O MPF P21 4

A cell is 2n 24 The cell has completed Telophase and Cytokinesis 2 How many chromosomes does it have per cell Are they replicated or unreplicated O 12 replicated O24 replicated 12 unreplicated O 24 unreplicated

The total DNA content of each daughter cell is reduced during meiosis because O chromosomes replicate during the interphase between Meiosis I and Meiosis II O homologous chromosomes separate in Meiosis I O chromosomes do not replicate during the interphase preceding Meiosis I half the chromosomes from each gamete are lost during fertilization sister chromatids separate during anaphase of Meiosis I

Which of the following is not true of sister chromatids O they are joined by a centromere during prophase and metaphase O they segregate from each other during mitotic anaphase O they arise by replication during S phase they contain identical genetic information they contain different types of genetic information

Independent assortment refers to the way in which multiple sets of chromosome pairs can align on the metaphase plate druing Meiosis 1 True False

If 2n 24 and a body cell is at G1 after completing mitosis how many chromosomes are present per cell are they replicated or unreplicated 12 unreplicated 24 unreplicated 12 replicated 24 replicated

The ratio of the amount of DNA present in a Meiotic Prophase I cell to that in a Meiotic Telophase II cell is 4 1 3 1 2 1 none of the choices is correct

A cell lacks sister chromatids in a mitotically active tissue The cell in question is most likely in OS O GO G1

Which of these statements is false O In humans the embryo contains homologous pairs more than one choice is incorrect In humans gametes have originated from diploid cells

DNA is duplicated twice during meiosis Once during the interphase preceding meiosis I and again in the interphase preceding meiosis II O True False

2n 18 How many chromosomes are present per cell at Prophase of Mitosis and are they replicated or unreplicated O9 unreplicated O 18 replicated 9 replicated 18 unreplicated

Non tumor somatic cells may divide 20 50 times before death occurs none of these is correct a b c be subject to constant division cease division when mature

QUESTION 1 Place in order the steps of the scientific method V Analyze Results Run Experiments

2 Describe the structure and function of the following organelles a ribosomes b rough ER c smooth ER d Golgi complex e mitochondria f lysosomes g vacuoles bloroplast

A neutron is a subatomic particle that has a negative charge True False QUESTION 8 The subatomic particle that determines reactivity is the electron O True O False

QUESTION 9 Match the macromolecule with its characteristics Lipids Nucleic Acids Carbohydrates Proteins QUESTION 10 Match the cell structure or component to it s function character Nucleus A Structural or functional Includes keratin and hemoglobin B Fats Components of cell membrane Contains glycerol C Sugars Stores energy D Holds genetic information DNA RNA A Contains DNA eres a membrane

QUESTION 3 Match the structure of the microscope to its function Arm Stage Revolving nose piece Ocular Base QUESTION 4 If the total magnification of a microscope is 600X and the ocular is 10X what is the magnification of the objective 600x O 6x 0 6x O 60x A Contains the objectives B Used to carry the microscope C Structure which you look through may be replaced by camera D The portion of the microscope that the scope sits on E Place where slides are placed QUESTION 5 fviow increases as well

As your magnification increases your field of view increases as well O True False QUESTION 6 A proton is a subatomic particle that has a positive charge O True O False

What is the response when baking soda is place in vinegar O There is a chemical reaction and the solution turns black O A chemical reaction occurs and bubbling is noted O The baking soda merely sinks to the bottom

10 11 9 8 6 7 Hand Instruments Instrument used to remove soft dentin and decay from the tooth Multifunctional instrument with the sharp point at the tip sensitive to distinguish areas of calculus or decay on the surface of the teeth This instrument measures the sulcus of pocket depth of the periodontium of each tooth Instrument used to carry place and retrieve small objects such as cotton pellets gauze and cotton roll instrument used for a variety of purposes indirect vision reflecting light onto a surface retraction of tongue and soft tissue such as lips and cheek This double ended instrument is designed to pack freshly mixed amalgam and carry it to the prepared tooth Instrument used to contour or remove excess material interproximally Chapter 34 with the dish and claw like end Instrument used to carve the restorative material on the occlusal surface material restorative material Instrument with smooth working end and used to smooth the surface of a preparation This instrument is also plugger used to pack down freshly placed amalgam into the H Instruments are designed specifically for the placement of composite restorative

1 Karine s friends are asking her to do heroin with them She doesn t want to join in this potentially life threatening behavior but isn t sure how to say no to all of her friends What are three strategies she could use when responding to make sure her friends know that she doesn t intend on taking drugs 2 Mike has never been a very athletic person but he really wants to start becoming more physically fit He s not big on trying out for school sports teams but he s not sure what other opportunities are available outside of school that can help him have fun and engage in a healthier more active lifestyle What are five different suggestions a friend might offer to Mike in this scenario 3 Adia lives in Kigali Rwanda and attends a private boarding school that frequently wins national championships for a number of sports Anne lives in a small town outside Wichita Kansas her family has one car which her mother uses to commute to work How might their cultural backgrounds play a role in how much physical activity they each get How might each have different experiences when it comes to sports 4 Trent Lorenzo and George are at a party where alcohol is being served How will the dynamics of their social group playrole in whether these boys decide to drink Describe how the group might exhibit positive peer pressure Describe how they might exhibit negative peer pressure 5 Teens face online and digital dangers every day What are some strategies to avoid inappropriate digital and online communication and how can teens protect their online identity and avoid online predators If you are ever bullied cyberbullied or harassed what action plan would you put into place and where could you seek support to deal with this situation If students do choose to bully what are some consequences of their behavior

The recessive alleles for scute bristles s and ebony body e identify two autosomal genes on the third chromosome of Drosophila melanogaster When females heterozygous for these genes were crossed with scute bristled ebony bodied males the following classes and numbers of progeny out of 1000 were obtained wildtype bristles wildtype body 188 scute bristles wildtype body 307 wildtype bristles ebony body 313 scute bristles ebony body 192 What is the distanced between the s and e genes 18 8 map units 38 map units 0 5 62 man units

The recessive alleles for mahogany eyes m and ebony body e identify two autosomal genes on the third chromosome of Drosophila melanogaster When females heterozygous for these genes were crossed with mahogany eyed ebony bodied males the following classes and numbers of progeny out of 1000 were obtained mahogany eyes ebony body 319 mahogany eyes wild type body color 176 What is the distanced between the m and eb genes Wild type eye color wild type body color 311 Wild type eye color ebony body 194 19 4 map units 31 1 map units 31 9 map units

The recessive alleles for cinnibar eyes c and vestigial wings v identify two autosomal genes on the third chromosome of Drosophila melanogaster When females heterozygous at these two genes Cc Vv were crossed with cinnibar eyed vestigial winged males the following classes and numbers of progeny n 1000 were obtained wild type eye color wild type wings Wild type eye color vestigial wings Cinnibar eye color vestigial wings Cinnibar eye color wild type wings 46 map units Based upon these results the map distance between the cand v genes is estimated to be 8 map units 92 map units 42 4 map units 464 38 456

A wild type allele is the most common allele for a gene in a population expressed in the heterozygous state expressed only in the homozygous state always beneficial to the organism always completely dominant

Question 15 If the recombination frequency between P and O is 7 4 and between N and O it is 7 9 what is the likely order of these genes on the chromosome if the distance between N and P is 15 7 N O P O P N Sither P O N or N O P 0 5 pts OO N D

Consider the relative map distances between four genes on the chromosome shown here What is the expected recombination frequency between genes X and Z W X Y 2 15 10 5 2 10 Z

You are studying two genes that are located on the same chromosome They are located 55 map units apart How will the alleles of these genes behave in a dihybrid cross They will appear to segregate independently as if they are located on different chromosomes This cannot be adequately answered without knowing the recombination frequency They will assort together because they are linked Question 15 0 5 pts

Red green color blindness is X linked in humans If a male is red green color blind and both parents have normal color vision which of the male s grandparents is most likely to be red green color blind Maternal grandmother Maternal grandfather Paternal grandmother Paternal grandfather Either grandfather is equally likely

In the following cross P generation the genes are inherited independently not linked except for genes C and D which are completely linked and show no recombination AAbbccDD x aaBBCCdd What is the genotype of the F1 offspring AaBbCcDd

You are working as a cytogeneticist a scientist who looks for and evaluates chromosomal and genetic abnormalities and you have been asked to look at cell samples from a woman who is experiencing infertility You first stain the cells to look for Barr bodies and you find that she has two Barr bodies in each cell Which of the following is a possible conclusion about her sex chromosomes She is genotype XXX She has only a single X chromosome A She is XXY with a non functional Y chromosome

Red green color blindness is a sex linked recessive trait in humans Two people with normal color vision have a color blind son What are the genotypes of the parents OXX and XY OXRXR and XRY XRX and XRY XRX and XY

If a male affected by a recessive sex linked trait reproduces with a female who is homozygous wild type for that trait what is the chance that any of their offspring will have the trait 0 25 50

Can human males be carriers for X linked traits Yes because both males and females can express recessive traits Yes because the Y chromosome can carry the recessive allele No because males only have one copy of the X chromosome No because males don t have sex chromosomes

This is a picture of a male calico cat Which of the following must be true of this cat Select all that apply He is XXY His cells will have a Barr body 0 5 pts He has a functional SRY gene He is heterozygous for the coat color allele He lacks the XIST gene

In cats black fur color is caused by an X linked allele the other allele at this locus causes orange color The heterozygote is tortoiseshell What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cros of a black female and an orange male tortoiseshell females black males black females orange males tortoiseshell females tortoiseshell males Ogrange females black males

0 5 pt You are working as a cytologist scientists who study cells and cell abnormalities and you are given some cells from a male patient You note that these cells all have a single Barr body You do further analysis and see that all cells also have a Y chromosome Which of the following must be true of this male patient The patient is XXY The patient is phenotypically female The patient should produce sperm with the normal chrorosome complement The patient will have hemophilia

1 The figure below depicts the formation of peptidoglycan in a Gram positive bacterium IK Staphylococcus aureus As shown in the figure this process is mediated by the sequential action of Enzyme 1 and Enzyme 2 10 points I II amino acid polymer disaccharide Enzyme 1 transglycosylase cefazolin growing peptidoglycan Enzyme 2 Transceptdate III mature peptidoglycan a Provide the names for the items labeled I and II in the disaccharide and for the item labeled III in the mature peptidoglycan b Describe the roles of Enzyme 1 and Enzyme 2 in the process

Biodata items usually call for factual data however items that tap attitudes feelings and value judgments are sometimes included True False

The appraisal of work performance is not necessary for every organization O True False